Module 1
Calculus
- Verify Rolle’s theorem for the function f(x) = x2 for
Solution:
Here f(x) = x2;
i) Since f(x) is algebraic polynomial which is continuous in [-1, 1]
Ii) Consider f(x) = x2
Diff. w.r.t. x we get
f'(x) = 2x
Clearly f’(x) exist in (-1, 1) and does not becomes infinite.
Iii) Clearly
f(-1) = (-1)2 = 1
f(1) = (1)2 = 1
f(-1) = f(1).
Hence by Rolle’s theorem, there exist such that
f’(c) = 0
i.e. 2c = 0
c = 0
Thus such that
f'(c) = 0
Hence Rolle’s Theorem is verified.
2. Verify Rolle’s Theorem for the function f(x) = ex(sin x – cos x) in
Solution:
Here f(x) = ex(sin x – cos x);
i) Clearly ex is an exponential function continuous for every also sin x and cos x are Trigonometric functions Hence (sin x – cos x) is continuous in and Hence ex(sin x – cos x) is continuous in .
Ii) Consider
f(x) = ex(sin x – cos x)
Diff. w.r.t. x we get
f’(x) = ex(cos x + sin x) + ex(sin x + cos x)
= ex[2sin x]
Clearly f’(x) is exist for each & f’(x) is not infinite.
Hence f(x) is differentiable in .
Iii) Consider
Also,
Thus
Hence all the conditions of Rolle’s theorem are satisfied, so there exist such, that
i.e.
i.e. sin c = 0
But
Hence Rolle’s theorem is verified.
3. Verify the Lagrange’s mean value theorem for
Solution:
Here
i) Clearly f(x) = log x is logarithmic function. Hence it is continuous in [1, e]
Ii) Consider f(x) = log x.
Diff. w.r.t. x we get,
Clearly f’(x) is exist for each value of & is finite.
Hence all conditions of LMVT are satisfied Hence at least
Such that
i.e.
i.e.
i.e.
i.e.
Since e = 2.7183
Clearly c = 1.7183
Hence LMVT is verified.
4. Verify Cauchy mean value theorems for &in
Solution:
Let &;
i) Clearly f(x) and g(x) both are trigonometric functions. Hence continuous in
Ii) Since &
Diff. w.r.t. x we get,
&
Clearly both f’(x) and g’(x) exist & finite in . Hence f(x) and g(x) is derivable in and
Iii)
Hence by Cauchy mean value theorem, there exist at least such that
i.e.
i.e. 1 = cot c
i.e.
Clearly
Hence Cauchy mean value theorem is verified.
5. then
Proof:
Here f(x) = tan x
By Maclaurin’s expansion,
… (1)
Since
…..
By equation (1)
6. Then
Proof:-
Here f(x) = sin hx.
By Maclaurin’s expansion,
(1)
By equation (1) we get,
7. Evaluate 0∞ x3/2 e -x dx
Solution: 0∞ x3/2 e -x dx = 0∞ x 5/2-1 e -x dx
= γ(5/2)
= γ(3/2+ 1)
= 3/2 γ(3/2 )
= 3/2 . ½ γ(½ )
= 3/2 . ½ .π
= ¾ π
8. Show that
Solution : =
=
= ) .......................
=
=
9. Evaluate dx.
Solution : Let dx
X | 0 | |
t | 0 |
Put or ;dx =2t dt .
dt
dt
10. Evaluate: I = 02 x2 / (2 – x ) . Dx
Solution:
Letting x = 2y, we get
I = (8/2) 01 y 2 (1 – y ) -1/2dy
= (8/2) . B(3 , 1/2 )
= 642 /15